In previous question, I asked how one would simplify the following equation for the case where the variables are very big:
$\sum\limits^{k}_{i=m}(N-i)^{k-i}(\frac{1}{N})^k\frac{k!}{(k-i)!i!} \leq a$
This answer was basically to use an approximation like Stirling's formula. Having implemented this with some code, it still takes too long to find the maximum value of N so that the inequality holds true. Therefore, I need a direct solution for N. So the new question is, how would you go about solving this equation for N?
(Some simplifications are acceptable, but I would like to have it as accurate as possible. The values this equation will be used for are all in the 100,000-1,000,000 range, except $m$, which is in the 100s range.)