Let $$a_n=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^n.$$ For a real number $r$, denote by $\langle r\rangle$ the fractional part of $r$.
Why is the sequence $$\langle a_n\rangle$$ not equidistributed in $[0,1]$?
Let $$a_n=\left(\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}\right)^n.$$ For a real number $r$, denote by $\langle r\rangle$ the fractional part of $r$.
Why is the sequence $$\langle a_n\rangle$$ not equidistributed in $[0,1]$?
Let $\phi'=(1-\sqrt 5)/2$ denote the Galois conjugate of the golden mean $\phi$. Then $\phi^n+\phi'^{n}$ is an integer for every $n\in\mathbb N$, i.e. $$\phi^n+\phi'^{n}\equiv 0\ (\mbox{mod}\ 1).$$
But $|\phi'|<1$, so $\phi'^{n}\to 0$. This implies that $\phi^n\to 0\ (\mbox{mod}\ 1)$.
The property that the sequence $\{ \mbox{frac} (x^n)\}$ is not equidistributed is shared by other Pisot numbers. There is quite a lot of research publications devoted to them.
If you just try it, the fractional part becomes very close to 0 or 1 quickly. This is because $\phi ^2=\phi +1$.