I've been reading a bit about how the set of bounds changes for a set depending on what superset one works with. I considered the sets $S\subseteq T\subseteq\mathbb{Q}$ and worked out a few contrived examples:
If $S=T=$ {$x\in\mathbb{Q}\ | \ x^2\lt 2$}, so here $S$ is not bounded above in $T$, but it is bounded about in $\mathbb{Q}$, with $2$ being a possibility.
Also, if $S=$ {$x\in\mathbb{Q}\ | \ x^2\lt 1$} and $T=$ {$x\in\mathbb{Q}\ | \ x\lt 2 \ \text{and}\ x\neq 1$}, then $S$ is bounded in $T$ and $\sup_\mathbb{Q} S=1$ exists, but $\sup_T S$ does not exist.
My question is, is it possible for $S$ to be bounded in $T$ where $\sup_T S$ exists, but $\sup_\mathbb{Q} S$ does not? And moreover, can both $\sup_T S$ and $\sup_\mathbb{Q} S$ exist, but not be equal? Any example of this would be much appreciated.