I'm interested because I want to show that $x^2-34y^2\equiv -1\pmod{m}$ has solutions for all integers $m$. I started by using the following reasoning:
If $3\nmid m$, then $gcd(m,3)=1$. Then there exists a multiplicative inverse $\bar{3}$ modulo $m$. I note that $5^2-34=-(3^2)$, and thus $\bar{3}^2(5^2-34)\equiv (\bar{3}\cdot 5)^2-34(\bar{3}^2)\equiv -(\bar{3})^2(3^2) \equiv -1\pmod{4}$. And thus $(\bar{3}\cdot 5, \bar{3})$ is a solution modulo $m$.
Similarly, if $5\nmid m$, then $(m,5)=1$. Then since $3^2-34=-(5^2)$, then I also have $\bar{5}^2(3^2-34)\equiv (\bar{5}\cdot 3)^2-34(\bar{5}^2)\equiv -(\bar{5})^2(5^2)\equiv -1\pmod{m}$.
So for any $m$ not divisible by $3$ or $5$, there exists a solution. Then for $m$ such that $3|m$ and $5|m$, then $m$ has prime factorization $m=3^a5^b{p_1}^{q_1}\cdots {p_r}^{q_r}$. This would give the system of congruences
$x^2-34y^2 \equiv -1 \pmod{3^a}, x^2-34y^2 \equiv -1 \pmod{5^b}, x^2-34y^2 \equiv -1 \pmod{{p_i}^{q_i}}$
Then $5\nmid 3^a$, $3\nmid 5^b$, and $3\nmid {p_i}^{q_i}$ and $5\nmid {p_i}^{q_i}$, so each of the congruences has a solution. Does the Chinese Remainder Theorem then imply that there is a solution modulo $m$? I know that it holds for polynomials in one variable $x$, and that the number of solutions is the product of the number of solutions for each prime power modulus. Would the same result hold now that there are two variables in the polynomial? I haven't found any proofs to support or contradict the result. Thanks!