I received some homework (calculus), which I can't prove: $f(n) * g(n) \ge f(n) + g(n)$ for some $n \geq 1$ is always true $(f(n), g(n) \ge 1)$
I think that this is true, so I need to prove that there is some $n \geq 1$ ($n$ is a natural number) for which this inequality will be true always, thanks in advance for any idea