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Can you tell me why the following is true?

A ring $R$ is local if and only if every principal left $R$-module is indecomposable.


(Edit by KennyTM: The above is OP's original question. The latest, completely changed question follows:)

what is the relation between regular ring and this property:

$ab=1$ then $ba=1$ when $a,b\in R$

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    @Arash: Do you have a question, or were you just making a statement?2010-12-12
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    @Willie Wong: That's a good guess, but I would much rather the OP would clarify just what he is doing or expecting. Maybe he was assigned a "prove or disprove"?2010-12-13
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    @Arash: welcome to math.SE! I edited your question to be, well, actually a question. For future reference, it is generally a good idea to state clearly what your question is, and perhaps give a bit of background information.2010-12-13
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    @Arturo: this question was re-directed here from MO. The version on MO, while equally terse, actually asks "Why?". So no, it is not a guess. :-)2010-12-13
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    @Willie Wong: Fair enough; I guess I should start checking MO for this kind of thing.2010-12-13
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    This question *completely* changed with the edit 9 mins ago. All the above comments, and the answer below, apply to the previous version, which can be read in the edit history.2010-12-14
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    I've started a meta discussion on these perplexing edits. http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/1343/what-to-do-with-a-user-who-is-editing-existing-questions-and-replacing-with-entir2010-12-15

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