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Can n! be a perfect square when n is an integer greater than 1? (But is it possible, to prove without Bertrand's postulate. Because bertrands postulate is quite a strong result.)

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    See [this](http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/54290.html).2010-11-30
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    @J.M.: I found the resolution very complex. Honestly, I could not understand it.2010-11-30
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    Actually, the link J. M. pointed to has the answer in the first paragraph — and it's the same as the two answers posted below. The rest of the page is a proof of Bertrand's postulate itself.2010-12-01
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    @ShreevatsaR: You're right. Thank you for participating. Thank you all.2010-12-01
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    Is there a proof of this fact which does not use Bertrand's postulate?2012-03-01
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    Another related question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1812580/is-sqrtn-a-natural-number2016-09-19

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