If the probability of an event is $\frac{1}{\infty}$ and $\infty$ trials are conducted, how many times will the event occur — $0$, $1$, or $\infty$?
Probability and Infinity
6
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probability
infinity
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81/infinity is not a well-defined probability. Do you mean zero? If so, then it's not possible to say anything; events can occur with probability zero without being impossible. – 2010-09-23
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0Isn’t 1 / ∞ defined as 0? http://www.cs.cmu.edu/~ndr/ProbabilityParadox.html – 2010-09-23
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0Is byoogle pointing out a bug in the reputation algorithm? – 2010-09-23
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2@yasmar: No. If you come over from stackoverflow (by associating accounts), you get 101 rep automatically. – 2010-09-23
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0I have started a discussion here about why this thread has so many votes to close it http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/858/why-are-people-voting-to-close-probability-and-infinity – 2010-09-24
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0[What's](http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/55764.html): [$\frac{\infty}{\infty}$?](http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/53337.html) Also, if it occurs $1$ time, why don't you repeat this process $\infty$ times? This would essentially be the same as doing the whole process once, and getting $\infty$. We've lowered it down to: $0$, $\infty$, $\textrm{undefined}$ and $\textrm{WTH?}$. – 2011-05-11
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0@Moron If you've got $> 200$ rep (IIRC) on *any* SE site, and you associate accounts, you get a one-time $+100$ rep per account. – 2011-05-11
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0@muntoo: I see. Thanks. – 2011-05-11