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I was under the impression that all 2-forms are the wedge $(\wedge)$ of two 1-forms. Is it possible to have a 2-form that you can't write as $A\wedge B$ with $A,B$ 1-forms?

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    The question in your title is the opposite of the question in the body of your thread. Mariano is responding to the latter.2010-10-06

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